«Can two physically identical universes produce different quantum measurement outcomes?» [closed]

If two universes are completely identical in every physical respect—including their quantum states, environmental conditions, histories, and all microscopic degrees of freedom—and if exactly the same quantum experiment is performed under exactly the same conditions in both universes, is it possible for the results to be different—for example, for the result to be 0 in one and 1 in the other? And if so, what could possibly be the basis for this difference when there is no physical distinction between the two universes? Does such a difference mean that quantum outcomes are fundamentally indeterminate and non-deterministic, or could it perhaps indicate the existence of hidden variables or deeper laws that are not included in the standard description of quantum mechanics? And if there is no other physical difference whatsoever, even in principle, what does it actually mean to say that one universe “randomly” produced 0 while the other “randomly” produced 1?